What do you have got?

Question

Hi teachers,1.  Is this phrase British English, What do you have got there? 2.  Is the above sentence structure same as What does she have planned this week?  "planned" is acting like an adverbial or maybe adjectival phrase.   I understand it's not the same structure as "What has she planned this week", but the same meaning.ThanksTN

GPY · Accepted Answer

1. "What do you have got there?" is incorrect. It should be "What have you got there?" or "What do you have there?". The former is a bit more informal.

2. In "What does she have planned this week?", I would say that "planned" is an adjective.

Tinanam0102 · Answer

Hi GPY,

Why has it always got to be me to clean up the mess? In this sentence has got is used. Can it be 'Why is it always me to clean up the mess?' Is this structure 'present perfect'?

Thanks
TN

Grammarfreak · Answer

tinanam0102Why has it always got to be me to clean up the mess?

No, it is not the correct form of present perfect. These are the possible collocations which have relatively the same core meaning:
Why does it have to be me cleaning up the /your mess ?
Why is it always me who have to clean up your / the mess ?
Why do I have to be the one who always clean up the mess you created ?
Why am I always the one to clean up after your mess ?

GPY · Answer

grammarfreakWhy does it have to be me cleaning up the /your mess ?Why is it always me who have to clean up your / the mess ?Why do I have to be the one who always clean up the mess you created ?Why am I always the one to clean up after your mess ?

Why is it always me who has to clean up your / the mess?
Why do I have to be the one who always cleans up the mess you created?

Grammarfreak · Answer

GPYWhy is it always me who has to clean up your / the mess?Why do I have to be the one who always cleans up the mess you created?

Oh, really! Thanks, but I didn't know " me " is considered third person singular

If the grammar rules I'd learned still hold true, then " us ", "you" and "me" are excluded from the 3rd person rule which applies to "he", "she", and "it". Otherwise, these natives would be wrong; would they not? Or there is a grey area we should know about? www.advocating-together.org.uk/PDFs/Issue%204.pdf?

Why is it always us who have to move and not people from Kemback St. ARC? Kemback Street is a purpose built centre which is specifically for people with.www.telegraph.co.uk › ... › Columnists› Jan Moir?

The Daily Telegraph

Jun 4, 2008 - Why is it always us who are at fault, who have to change, who must apologise, who never stop grovelling? What form this therapy might take,

McCain: 'Angry and bitter' Syrians need America's help ...
politicalticker.blogs.cnn.com/2013/04/28/.../comment-page-1/?

CNN

Apr 28, 2013 - Why is it always us who have to give of our money and our blood to fix whatever is wrong in the world. Lets the Saudi's do it. Or the Brits or the ...

GPY · Answer

Those examples are all correct in choice of verb form. "who" is plural anyway, so we don't need to worry whether agreement is with "who" or with the antecedent of "who".

"Why do I have to be the one who always cleans up the mess you created?" has a third-person singular antecedent for "who", namely "the one", so there is no question that it should be "cleans".

It is possible in formal language that you may read things like "It is I who am/have/etc. ...", where the verb agrees with "I". The analogous "Why is it always I who have to ..." sounds strained to me, but "Why is it always me who have to ..." is effectively impossible.

Grammarfreak · Answer

GPYThose examples are all correct in choice of verb form. "who" is plural anyway, so we don't need to worry whether agreement is with "who" or with the antecedent of "who".

My examples had the same basic patterns like those I had posted as comparisons. So why you considered mine wrong and theirs correct is puzzling to me. We have to be consistent in applying the same rules. It is clear that the antecendent " who " in my sentences refered to "me", and the other sentences, the "who " refer to "us" respectively.

GPYIt is possible in formal language that you may read things like "It is I who am/have/etc. ...", where the verb agrees with "I". The analogous "Why is it always I who have to ..." sounds strained to me, but "Why is it always me who have to ..." is effectively impossible.

I or me, it is the "first person", so " using "has" seemed odd to me. I am not convinced. Sorry for the disagreement.

GPY · Answer

grammarfreakI am not convinced.

Could another forum member please comment on this? The question is what is the correct verb form in the following two sentences:

Why is it always me who have/has to clean up your / the mess?
Why do I have to be the one who always clean/cleans up the mess you created?

Anonymous · Answer

tinanam01021. Is this phrase British English, What do you have got there?

Definitely not. That's the kind of English heard from people who are speakers of other languages and are learning the language but, have a limited knowledge of it.

Tinanam0102 · Answer

Hi Anonymous,

Did you also answer my other two threads regarding British usage? Just a hunch. I think I hear Americans say it like 'What do you got?' or 'What do you have got?' Maybe it's because they talk really fast, but I think when I hear a lot on some TV shows. I think in most informal conservations it's acceptable.

Thanks
TN

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