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Teal lime Posted 7 years ago
Grammar
We ought to have gone to war in 1938 …
‘We ought to have gone to war in 1938 … September 1938 would have been the most favourable date.’
Adolf Hitler, February 1945
My question is the following:
Why is it "We ought to have gone to war in 1938…" and not "We should have gone to war in 1938..."?
Thank you
Top answer
There is no significant difference in meaning between the two forms. Hitler's translator chose one; s/he could just as well have chosen the other.
- There is no significant difference in meaning between the two forms.
- Hitler's translator chose one; s/he could just as well have chosen the other.
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1 Answers
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There is no significant difference in meaning between the two forms. Hitler's translator chose one; s/he could just as well have chosen the other.
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