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Deepcosmos Posted 4 years ago
Grammar

We are none of us perfect

Hello, everyone,

While I've often seen "None of us is exactly alike", “None of us is perfect”, can I say, "We are none of us exactly alike", “We are none of us perfect” as per the reference below? I assume the latter version might emphasize the subject as an emphatic reflexive, but feel those are awkward and ungrammatical. I would really appreciate if you advise me if the latter ones make sense and how you, natives evaluate those in terms of grammar.

* reference; https://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/We+are+none+of+us+perfect

  

Top answer

deepcosmos "None of us is exactly alike" That doesn't actually work. No two of us are exactly alike. You need two things to have alikeness.

  • deepcosmos "None of us is exactly alike" That doesn't actually work.
  • No two of us are exactly alike.
  • You need two things to have alikeness.
  • deepcosmos can I say, "We are none of us exactly alike" For the same reason, this doesn't work, either.
  • The "we are none of us" part is fine, but the whole statement doesn't make sense.
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2 Answers
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deepcosmos"None of us is exactly alike"

That doesn't actually work. No two of us are exactly alike. You need two things to have alikeness.

deepcosmoscan I say, "We are none of us exactly alike"

For the same reason, this doesn't work, either. The "we are none of us" part is fine, but the whole statement doesn't make

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"We are none of us" is a less used variant of "None of us is/are". ("We are all of us" is another phrase in the same mold, by the way.)

The meaning is the same either way. The variant version seems perhaps a bit more formal in register, but I don't think there is any attempt to emphasize anything by using it. Personally, I don't think I've heard anyone use it in conversation more than

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