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Ant_222 Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

was/were

Hello everybody,

Below is another quotation from "Lord of the Rings":

«...a device of seven stars set between the crescent Moon and the rayed Sun, and about them was (?) written many runes.»

"Many runes" is a plural form, so why is the corresponding verb, "was written", singular?

Anton
  

Top answer

Interesting. I suppose Tolkien was either thinking of the one written runic passage, or he intended to throw the grammar off slightly to add that 'medieval' flavour to the text.

  • Interesting.
  • I suppose Tolkien was either thinking of the one written runic passage, or he intended to throw the grammar off slightly to add that 'medieval' flavour to the text.
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3 Answers
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Interesting. I suppose Tolkien was either thinking of the one written runic passage, or he intended to throw the grammar off slightly to add that 'medieval' flavour to the text.
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Interesting indeed, Mister Micawber. Although I'd expect something like "...was written many a rune."...
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Or/and perhaps he wished to give the idea of a single block of writing which consisted of many runes.

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