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Postmodernbliss Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Was vs. Were

I had a student ask me today why does 'was' become 'were' in a conditional sentence, while 'were' stays the same for you - non/conditional and conditional sentences. I know that 'were' is a subjunctive mood verb, but I don't even really know what that means. For example:

I was happy. / If I 'were' happy, I would have done something more interesting than stay at home?

You were happy yesterday. / If you were happy, you should have done something fun.

Many kind thanks to whoever can answer this question.
  

Top answer

" It is a coincidence that the second person singular indicative is spelled and pronounced the same as the past subjunctive. How that came to be is a matter for the historical linguists and etymologists, and is really only of interest to them. English is a tangled mess of influences and accidents and errors.

— Enoon

  • " It is a coincidence that the second person singular indicative is spelled and pronounced the same as the past subjunctive.
  • How that came to be is a matter for the historical linguists and etymologists, and is really only of interest to them.
  • English is a tangled mess of influences and accidents and errors.
  • The different forms of the verb "to be" come from four separate origins, for instance—three different Indo-European bases and a Germanic one of unknown origin.
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2 Answers
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The subjunctive does not inflect for person or number: "If I/you/he/they were ...." and "If I/you/he/they be ...." It is a coincidence that the second person singular indicative is spelled and pronounced the same as the past subjunctive. How that came to be is a matter for the historical linguists and etymologists, and is really only of interest to them. English is a tangled mess of influences and
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Enoon,

Hello. Thank you for your helpful and thorough reply.

Best regards.

Postmodernbliss
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