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Tommyek Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Was to + base form of verb

Hi,

I will be grateful if someone tell me the rule of creating the following:

  • As we saw in Chapter 1, Chomsky's solution to the language acquisi­tion conundrum was to assert that children acquire language because they have no choice.
  • The purport of that attack was to prove that generality could never be an intrinsic property of a mental content.
  • Richard was to prove one of the most enigmatic of kings.
  • Yes I was just trying to think as to who it was to be quite honest.
Is 'was to + base form' equivalent to "have to/must to"? Maybe, is this something like 'She agreed to help me.' in which construction 'verb + to inftinite' is without hidden meaning?

and extra question
  • One of his first acts was to write a critique of Verbal Behavior that comprehensively demolished behaviourism as a credible theory of language acquisition.
Is 'One of his first acts was to write' is based on the rule 'be + the first/second etc + to-infitinte?

Cheers,

Tomek
  

Top answer

Tommyek Hi, I will be grateful if someone tell me the rule of creating the following: As we saw in Chapter 1, Chomsky's solution to the language acquisi­tion conundrum was to assert that children acquire language because they have no choice. The purport of that attack was to prove that generality could never be an intrinsic property of a mental content. Richard was to prove one of the most enigmatic of kings.

  • Tommyek Hi, I will be grateful if someone tell me the rule of creating the following: As we saw in Chapter 1, Chomsky's solution to the language acquisi­tion conundrum was to assert that children acquire language because they have no choice.
  • The purport of that attack was to prove that generality could never be an intrinsic property of a mental content.
  • Richard was to prove one of the most enigmatic of kings.
  • Yes I was just trying to think as to who it was to be quite honest.
  • Is 'was to + base form' equivalent to "have to/must to"?
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6 Answers
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TommyekHi,

I will be grateful if someone tell me the rule of creating the following:

As we saw in Chapter 1, Chomsky's solution to the language acquisi­tion conundrum was to assert that children acquire language because they have no choice.
The purport of that attack was to prove that generality could never be an intrinsic property of a mental conte
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AlpheccaStars
TommyekIs 'One of his first acts was to write' is based on the rule 'be + the first/second etc + to-infitinte?
I'm not sure what rule you are citing here.
This sentence follows the same pattern as the first.


So, there is the rule
'the to-infinitive is used after: be + the first/second etc
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TommyekSo, there is the rule
'the to-infinitive is used after: be + the first/second etc
She was the frist to congratulate him.
He was the first person to set foot on the Moon.'
in some coursebooks for second language learners.
and I wondered if the above rule had been used in the last example.
Compare your example:
  • One of hi
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TommyekIs 'was to + base form' equivalent to "have to/must to"?
Sometimes it is, but the examples you give are a mixture of various kinds of be + infinitive.

1. In some of your examples the two parts are separate. In other words, some of your examples have be | infinitive, where the infinitive doesn't even belong
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I'd include the pattern "be about + infinitive" to express the immediate future:

We are about to finish the job.
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AnonymousI'd include the pattern "be about + infinitive" to express the immediate future:

We are about to finish the job.
Yes. Definitely. In a more complete treatment of the topic, this should also be included. The OP's immediate concern, however, was the case when was bumps up against the to of an infinitive directly (was to

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