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Pooyan Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
was affected vs has been affected
Hello,
Would please explain if the two sentences below have the same meaning? Do they both have the same sense for a native speaker ?
"If anyone is or knows someone that was personally affected by the incident . . . "
"If anyone is or knows someone that has been personally affected by the incident . . . "
Thanks
Would please explain if the two sentences below have the same meaning? Do they both have the same sense for a native speaker ?
"If anyone is or knows someone that was personally affected by the incident . . . "
"If anyone is or knows someone that has been personally affected by the incident . . . "
Thanks
Top answer
The intent is no doubt the same. For the native reader, the second suggests that the incident is in the more recent past.
- The intent is no doubt the same.
- For the native reader, the second suggests that the incident is in the more recent past.
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1 Answers
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The intent is no doubt the same. For the native reader, the second suggests that the incident is in the more recent past.
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