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Ruslan L. Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Verb 'to sell'

Please, explain me why the verb 'to sell' is used in active voice in such examples as 'the camera were not selling well', or 'the camera is selling well' - I am keen on photography, such examples I saw on english photographic sites several times. Why wasn't this used in a passive voice - 'the camera is being sold'?
  

Top answer

I can't explain why. It just happens to be one of the common uses of the verb. That is, it's both transitive and intransitive.

  • I can't explain why.
  • It just happens to be one of the common uses of the verb.
  • That is, it's both transitive and intransitive.
  • I believe the usage you cite would be used more often by retailers than by consumers.
  • " (active, intransitive, present progressive) I'm sure your dictionary will list an intransitive use.
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11 Answers
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I can't explain why. It just happens to be one of the common uses of the verb. That is, it's both transitive and intransitive.
I believe the usage you cite would be used more often by retailers than by consumers.
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This is an example of "middle voice". It is restricted to cases where the object is affected by the verb.

The chef cuts the potato.
Potatoes cut easily.

Joseph broke the glass.

This kind of glass breaks at the slightest touch.

But not:

I know the answer.
*The answer knows easily.

CJ
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CJ -- is this the same as "ergative verbs"?
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CJ -- What would be the terms to describe "not middle voice"? Are there two extremes?? - A.
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AvangiCJ -- What would be the terms to describe "not middle voice"? Are there two extremes?? - A.
Active voice and passive voice are "not middle voice". Actually, there is nothing in English that is a true middle voice formed with special endings, as there is in some other languages. This construction, also called "the middle alternation", is the closest t
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khoffCJ -- is this the same as "ergative verbs"?
I call them "Arghative" because they make me run for the exit screaming "Argh"!
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CalifJimActive voice and passive voice are "not middle voice".
It seems so simple.
Is it restricted to verbs which are both transitive and intransitive? (I guess that was Khoff's question.)
That is, "She is not sleeping well" would not be an example of middle voice.
(Everything else about it seems identical to "They are not selling w
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AvangiIs it restricted to verbs which are both transitive and intransitive?
It's restricted to verbs that are transitive, though the transform forces them into an intransitive state, so to speak. The object in the active form becomes the subject in the middle construction, but (unlike the passive) the verb remains in its active form. The verb now has "become
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khoffCJ -- is this the same as "ergative verbs"?
I looked this up in Beth Levin's book. The answer is "No". Ergative is another descriptive name for what she classifies as verbs that can undergo the "Causative/Inchoative Alternation". Example:

Janet broke the cup. (Causative)
The cup broke. (Inchoative)

Levin says that the
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CalifJimThere must be a fairly obvious difference if even a non-native speaker can see it
To me, the obvious difference between "This is not selling well" and "She is not sleeping well" is the difference between the least common use of the verb in the first case and the most common use of the verb in the second case.
We can assume that even a non-native

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