Can we use the verb share without an object?
For example:
1a) If you have some comments, feel free to share.
Is this sentence correct? Or the only correct version is the below?
1b) If you have some comments, feel free to share them.
Reegis Can we use the verb 'share' without an object? Yes. Reegis Is this sentence correct?
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ReegisCan we use the verb 'share' without an object?
Yes.
ReegisIs this sentence correct? Or the only correct version is the below?
Both are OK.
However, I would write it as the following.
"If you have any comments, don't hesitate to pass. "
Thanks for your answer and the suggestion:)
Let me make sure: so is there no difference in meaning between 1a and 1b because 'them' is simply implied in 1a?
Reegisbecause 'them' is simply implied in 1a?
Yes. It's clear to the reader, and there is no need to mention it again.
You could also say: " Feel free to share your comments if there are any."
You can, though it’s quite colloquial. The grammar is interesting:
If you have some comments, feel free [to share __].
The bracketed expression is sometimes called a “hollow” non-finite clause. It gets this weird name from the fact that some non-subject element is missing from the clause, though it is easily recoverable from some antecedent expression. In your exampl
BillJIf you have some comments, feel free [to share __].
Isn't "free to share" a complement in the imperative "[you] feel free to share" where "feel" is a linking verb and "free to share" adjectival subject complement? Isn't "free to share" an adjectival phrase where infinitive "to share" modifies the head of the phrase, i.e., "free"?
Persian Learner"If you have any comments, don't hesitate to pass. "
That does not have the same meaning as "If you have some comments, feel free to share."
Some people might interpret it as rude, some would say it's a non sequitur, and others would say it's opposite to the original.
Wow, I wouldn't think it might be interpreted as rude. Good to know...
Thanks Persian Learner, BillJ and AlpheccaStars for your help.