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Hanuman_2000 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Verb inflection

Hello,

Finite verbs can inflect on gender.
Is it true?

Please give an example?

Thanks.
  

Top answer

Finite verbs can inflect on gender. Is it true? Not in English.

— AlpheccaStars

  • Finite verbs can inflect on gender.
  • Is it true?
  • Not in English.
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3 Answers
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Finite verbs can inflect on gender.
Is it true?
Not in English.
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hanuman_2000Please give an example?
Russian past tense.

skazat' ~ to say; skazal ~ said (masculine); skazala ~ said (feminine)

CJ
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An0nymousVerbs, adjectives, and adverbs do not inflect in any way in English.
Most verbs are inflected to some extent in English. In most verbs we add -ed to the stem to form the past tense, -s to form the third person singular in the present tense, etc. We just don't have different endings for every number, gender and case of the v
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