Verb forms vs Verb tenses

Question

Hello everyone.At first, I wanted to asked what is the difference between verb forms and verb tenses.I did a little research and found that the verb forms are: infinitive, base, present simple 3d person singular, past simple, past participle, present participle.I don't quite understand what is this 'base' form. I've never heard of such a thing. As for the others forms I'm rather acquainted with them.But I feel like there is something missing. What about gerund? And what are differences between gerund and present participle?

Avangi · Accepted Answer

Ferbe I don't quite understand what is this 'base' form. I've never heard of such a thing. As for the others forms I'm rather acquainted with them.

But I feel like there is something missing. What about gerund? And what are differences between gerund and present participle? I think "base" is just another term for the root, or the "form" of the verb as it first appears in the dictionary. It's also equivalent to the "bare infinitive (without the "to")" and to the present tense in all persons except the 3rd person singular.

The gerund has the form of the present participle, but becomes a gerund by serving the function of a noun.

Ferbe · Answer

Ok. So the gerund is also a verb form?
I can say then that the verb forms are: infinitive, bare infinitive, present simple 3d person singular, past simple, past participle, present participle and gerund ?
Have I forgotten sth?

How can I tell when it's a gerund and when it's a present participle? Can you tell what their functions are?

You said that the present participle becomas a gerund by serving the function of a noun. I didn't understand exactly what you meant. Can you give an example?

For example, in this situation:
'In spite of being cold, Sally wouldn't wear a coat'.

This being... is it a gerund or a present participle?

CalifJim · Answer

The base form is the infinitive without "to". It's also called a bare infinitive. It's the form you see in the dictionary.

The form of the gerund is identical to the form of the present participle. Only the usage differs. A gerund functions as a noun. A present participle functions as an adjective.

The verb forms are used to build verb tenses. For example, the present tense of have combined with a past participle forms the present perfect tense. I have + taken = I have taken, the present perfect tense of take. He has + walked = He has walked, the present perfect tense of walk.

CJ

Avangi · Answer

FerbeFor example, in this situation:
'In spite of being cold, Sally wouldn't wear a coat'.

This being... is it a gerund or a present participle? In this case it's a gerund, functioning as object of the preposition, "of."

Obviously, without an example, the word alone would be a participle.

Being cold, Sally decided to put on her coat.Now it's a participle again. (participial phrase)

She was just being stubborn, refusing to wear her coat. (part of a tense)

Just as an aside, when choosing a verb as an example of something, "to be" is a terrible choice.

Ferbe · Answer

Ok. I understand the difference in theory, but it is still a little confusing for me...

So in 'In spite of being cold, Sally wouldn't war a coat', the being is a gerund.
You said it functions as an object. Objects are nouns, noun phrases or pronouns that are affected by the action of a verb, right?
Well, the problem is that I don't understand why this being is functioning as an object here.
That because I've always though of objects as nouns etc. that are affected by the action of a verb. And now you said that it is the object of the preposition 'of'. So it also receives the goal of a preposition?
I just can't see that.

Could you explain this?

Thanks everyone.

Avangi · Answer

Aha! Object of the preposition.

up the hill
under the bridge
in spite of being

Objects of the verb are nouns too!

I'm not sure that you can apply your "object of verb" definition (receiving the goal of) to an "object of the preposition."

It would be safer to simply think in terms of the definition of a preposition: "shows the relation of the word which follows, to some other word in the sentence." (The "word which follows" is considered the object.)

Perhaps not all objects are created equal.

Ferbe · Answer

Right! Got it now, yet there's something else that I wanted to ask.

'Obviously, without an example, the word alone would be a participle.'

Why is that? If they have the same form, why when the word is alone it would be a participle?

Avangi · Answer

I've been asking that question for years!

As Tavia said, "You're asking me why? I'll tell you. I don't know.

But it'stradition!"

In all seriousness, I believe the participles (present and past) are considered fundamental, or basic, or primary. They're "basic building blocks." When you build something with them, we move to the next stage of complexity.

Ferbe · Answer

Ok. Thanks a lot.

Verb forms vs Verb tenses

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