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Sarah88 Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Verb forms

Please help me to understand these, thanks.

The criminal fled (why I can't use "had fled" since it started and finished in the past ?) after having murdered the old man.
= The criminal fled after having the old man murdered.?
= The criminal fled after he murdered the old man. ?

I'm used to jogging ( why not "jog"?) in the partk every other day.

They might have been there, but I didn't see them.

They might be there, but I didn't see them. <-- Is this correct? Any differences in meaning?
  

Top answer

-- 'Starting and finishing in the past' is not a valid reason for using past perfect. e. it might be appropriate in some contexts, but here it is not called for, since the simple sequence of events is clearly defined by the word 'after' ) after having murdered the old man.

  • -- 'Starting and finishing in the past' is not a valid reason for using past perfect.
  • e.
  • it might be appropriate in some contexts, but here it is not called for, since the simple sequence of events is clearly defined by the word 'after' ) after having murdered the old man.
  • -- Someone else killed the old man at the criminal's demand.
  • = The criminal fled after he murdered the old man.
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1 Answers
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The criminal fled (why I can't use "had fled" since it started and finished in the past ?-- 'Starting and finishing in the past' is not a valid reason for using past perfect. Nevertheless, past perfect is not absolutely wrong here, i.e. it might be appropriate in some contexts, but here it is not called for, since the simple sequence of events is clearly defined by the word 'after'

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