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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Verb form
Hi, I was reading Bram Stockers novel, Dracula, when i stumbled on a very strange usage of verb tenses used by the author, here goes a snipped of the text:
"Let me tell you that so you will know what we four already know, for I have tell them. He, our enemy, have gone away. He have gonne back to his Castle in Transylvania."
I was wondering if you could explain me why did he put those verbs in that way, like " he have gonne away". thanks anyway
"Let me tell you that so you will know what we four already know, for I have tell them. He, our enemy, have gone away. He have gonne back to his Castle in Transylvania."
I was wondering if you could explain me why did he put those verbs in that way, like " he have gonne away". thanks anyway
Top answer
It sounds as though the author is deliberately using non-standard English to indicate that the speaker is not a native speaker of English.
- It sounds as though the author is deliberately using non-standard English to indicate that the speaker is not a native speaker of English.
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2 Answers
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It sounds as though the author is deliberately using non-standard English to indicate that the speaker is not a native speaker of English.
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