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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Various tense questions

Hi.

1. Is the present correct with such a phrase as "a long time ago"?

Is this an example of a present perfect tense use? Is there a difference in using the tense in a to-infinitive position (I think it is) and using the tense in the main clause?

I ought to have done it a long time ago.

Is this possible?

I have done it a long time ago/long ago.

2. Is this possible to use past perfect with such a phrase as "Before that" and the word "before"?

Before that, he had done some work for XXX.

He had done some work for XXX before.

3. I think the following are intransitive verbs. Does that mean all the following are possible? How come I don't seem to see some of them in writing. I might not have extensive sources to look at.

ceased -- is ceasing/has ceased/had reigned

reigned -- is reigning/has reigned/had reigned
  

Top answer

Anonymous I ought to have done it a long time ago. Ought is a defective auxiliary . It is normal for a perfect infinitive (to have done) to refer to the past in such cases: I would have written it.

  • Anonymous I ought to have done it a long time ago.
  • Ought is a defective auxiliary .
  • It is normal for a perfect infinitive (to have done) to refer to the past in such cases: I would have written it.
  • | He might have said something.
  • | You could have tried !
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1 Answers
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AnonymousI ought to have done it a long time ago.
Ought is a defective auxiliary. It is normal for a perfect infinitive (to have done) to refer to the past in such cases:

I would have written it. | He

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