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Jackson6612 Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

using would in place of will/shall in Indirect Speech

1b00Direct Speech02b00: The doctor said to him, ''She will not test his eyes.''02br
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01b00Indirect Speech02b00: 01font00The doctor said to him that she would not test his eyes.02font02br
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01b00Direct Speech02b00: John said, ''I shall leave for California early next month.''02br
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01b00Indirect Speech02b00: 01font00John said that he would leave for California early next month.02font02br
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00Why is 01i00would02i00 being used in place of 01i00will/02i00shall 00in Indirect Speech of above sentences. I know there is a rule to use 01i00would02i00 in place of 01i00will/shall02i00 when transforming Direct Speech into Indirect Speech but rule must have a reason. 01b01font00What reason is that?02font02b0-
  

Top answer

0 Because in indirect speach we are looking at the sentence from our present time frame while in the quoted speach we are looking from the timeframe of the speaker. 0-

— Bokeh

  • 0 Because in indirect speach we are looking at the sentence from our present time frame while in the quoted speach we are looking from the timeframe of the speaker.
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3 Answers
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0 Because in indirect speach we are looking at the sentence from our present time frame while in the quoted speach we are looking from the timeframe of the speaker. Both relate to possibility hence the conditional (ie the event had not occured at the time of the sentence).0-
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Jackson661212cite10Why is 11i10would12i10 being used in place of 11i10will/12i10shall 10in Indirect Speech of above sentences. I know there is a rule to use 11i10would12i10 in place of 11i10will/shall12i10 when transforming Direct Spee
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He said ," I shall go as soon as it is possible ."
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