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Anonymous Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

Using "have" and "has" in a question

I believe that in a statement, you would use "has" when referring to : he/she/it.

And, you would use "have" when referring to: you/I/they/we.

Eg. He has the ball. She has the ball. It has the ball in it's mouth.

You have the ball. I have the ball. They have the ball. We have the ball.

My question is who do you refer to when you use "has" and "have" when asking a question?

Eg. Do you have the ball? Do they have the ball? Does she have the ball?

Who has the ball?
  

Top answer

When the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb ( have ) or the pronoun referent: Do you have the ball? (referring to you) Does he have the ball? (referring to him) Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do -operator.

— Mister Micawber

  • When the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb ( have ) or the pronoun referent: Do you have the ball?
  • (referring to you) Does he have the ball?
  • (referring to him) Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do -operator.
  • Then it inflects as usual: Have you the ball?
  • Has she the ball?
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10 Answers
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When the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb (have) or the pronoun referent:

Do you have the ball? (referring to you)
Does he have the ball? (referring to him)

Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do-operator. Then it inflects as usual:

Ha
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Mister MicawberWhen the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb (have) or the pronoun referent:

Do you have the ball? (referring to you)
Does he have the ball? (referring to him)

Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do-operator. T
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Philip
Mister MicawberHave you the ball?
Has she the ball? These are the standard in British English.
And the only remaining full verb (beside "to be") that resists the "do-paraphrasing".

American English gave up this structure and it's assumed that Britis
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0 I understand the difference in use of HAD or HAVE, but not how to explain it. When is it singular and when is it plural? 0-
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0 01i00had02i00 is the past tense. It is used for all persons, both singular and plural.02br
02br
01i00have02i00 is the present tense. It is used for all persons, both singular and plural 01u00EXCEPT02u00 third person singular.02br
01i00has02i00 is the present tense for third per
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0 which is correct for example...02br
001. has she mentioned something to you?02br
00or02br
002. have she mentioned something to you? 0-
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No. 1 was the correct question because we use DOES or HAS or IS w/ third person (he,she,it) with singular noun and we use DO or HAVE or ARE with other personal pronouns(2nd person) (you,we,they) with plural noun form..I'm hoping that my idea or explanation can help you..*** bless. (Mike J. II)
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Define the uses of has and have in a question at the begining

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Which one is correct? He has some questions for you or he have some questions for you?

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