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Guest Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

Use of thereof in the first amendment

With the recent "attack on Christianity" being reported on certain news channels, I started looking into the cause of such attacks and the reasoning behind them. I began my search at the source of religious freedom in this country, the first amendment of the Constitution. The use of thereof left me with a question concerning exactly what it was replacing.

''Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion,
or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; ...''

In the commonly accepted interpretation, it refers to "of religion". But, I read it as "an establishment of religion". This left me a bit puzzled.

When I took the same sentence structure, and replaced "an establishment of religion" with "a capitalization of words". It was clear that with the change, "thereof" did not to refer to the object of the prepostion.

So, here I am asking to what thereof refers when used properly. Does it refer to a direct object just as "establishment" or "capitalization"? Or can it also refer to the object of a preposition such as "religion", as the common interpretation seems to suggest?

Any help would be appreciated.

Thank you.

Raphael
  

Top answer

I don't think one can "freely exercise an establishment". There's something wrong about the way those words go together. It's something like "employ a mystery" or "diversify sympathy".

  • I don't think one can "freely exercise an establishment".
  • There's something wrong about the way those words go together.
  • It's something like "employ a mystery" or "diversify sympathy".
  • One wonders what it could mean.
  • So I think "thereof" can only mean "of religion".
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6 Answers
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I don't think one can "freely exercise an establishment". There's something wrong about the way those words go together. It's something like "employ a mystery" or "diversify sympathy". One wonders what it could mean.

So I think "thereof" can only mean "of religion".

CJ
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Using the words together, and having them sound proper, would depend on what definition of establishment was intended. For example, if the intended meaning was to refer to an established code of laws (of religion), it makes sense to say freely exercise an establishment. On the other hand, it would not make sense if it was to refer to a public or private institution or a state church.

T
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Shouldn't thereof refer to the same object in all three of these sentences since they have identical structures?


No, certainly not. Finding the antecedent of a pronomial expression (like "thereof") is often a matter of semantics -- one's feel for the meaning of the words. The syntax alone cannot always uniquely determine the antecedent. Note how "it" reference
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That makes sense.

Would you agree that it is possible that thereof referring to an establishment could depend on the intended definition of establishment? Or am I off base there as well?
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Yes, I think it could, but if I follow you correctly, you want to say that if "an establishment" is taken to mean "something established", "a settled arrangement", or "a code of laws", then the antecedent of "thereof" is more likely to be "an establishment" than "religion".

This leads me to think about sentences such as the following:

''Congress shall make no law respecting so
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I think there are a couple way to look at this. One is the use of the word 'thereof' and what it means. It is defined as such:
thereof -adverb: of or concerning this, that or it
When the word 'thereof' is used it gets its meaning entirely from the word to which it refers. So in a sense you must ask 'Of what?' in order to understand what it means.

free exercise

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