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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
Use of passive past perfect in subordinate clause
Hi, would you say that the passive tense in the subordinate clause makes the past perfect tense there unnecessary since the sequence is contextually clear?
After he had been out-guessed by his opponent, he threw up the game board abruptly in an ill-manner fashion.
After he had been pushed by a boy, he got up to dust-off his clothes.
After he had been out-guessed by his opponent, he threw up the game board abruptly in an ill-manner fashion.
After he had been pushed by a boy, he got up to dust-off his clothes.
Top answer
Yes, I would. " It's not clear if your intention is to make a general statement, or to refer only to the present examples. I suppose since context is part of your argument, the examples would be critical.
- Yes, I would.
- " It's not clear if your intention is to make a general statement, or to refer only to the present examples.
- I suppose since context is part of your argument, the examples would be critical.
- " - A.
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1 Answers
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Yes, I would. Even though the context makes it clear that one event immediately followed the other, "after being pushed" gives an enhanced sense of immediacy and causal connection, as compared to "after he had been pushed."
It's not clear if your intention is to make a general statement, or to refer only to the present examples. I suppose since context is part of your argument, the exa
It's not clear if your intention is to make a general statement, or to refer only to the present examples. I suppose since context is part of your argument, the exa
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