use of it and become

Question

Which is correct:I have noticed it become very common now a days. I have noticed it has become very common now a days.I have seen a post that confused me regarding the use of 'it and become'. Here is the post:"It's increasingly common throughout American English. I've noticed it become more common than the original "invitation" in the last few years." Should 'has' be used after 'noticed', or not in this case because 'it' refers to the thing that has become common?

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

AnonymousWhich is correct:I have noticed it become very common nowadays. I have noticed it has become very common nowadays.

Both. It's two different structures.

The first is a catenative structure. (Double verb, the second being the plain infinitive.)

I've noticed it become very common.
Compare: I saw him take the money. / I heard her leave.
____________

The second one is simply a main clause and a subordinate content clause.

I have noticed (that) it has become very common.
Compare: I know (that) he has taken the money. / I think (that) she has already left.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

CalifJim AnonymousWhich is correct:I have noticed it become very common nowadays. I have noticed it has become very common nowadays.Both. It's two different structures.The first is a catenative structure. (Double verb, the second being the plain infinitive.)I've noticed it become very common.Compare: I saw him take the money. / I heard her leave.____________The second one is simply a main clause and a subordinate content clause.I have noticed (that) it has become very common.Compare: I know (that) he has taken the money. / I think (that) she has already left.CJ

Thanks. But to be honest it's very difficult to understand the difference. This is very technical! I understand you examples but I don't see how it relates to the use of 'it' with and without 'has'!

Isn't there a simpler way for explaining this in simple english!

I thought that 'it' in the first example refers to something previously mentioned, where as in the second it does not?

Your example show that one is in the present form and the second present perfect. That is what I understood.

CalifJim · Answer

Anonymoushow it relates to the use of 'it' with and without 'has'!

'it' is the subject of 'become' in either case.

AnonymousI thought that 'it' in the first example refers to something previously mentioned, where as in the second it does not?

No. In the original context, which was in a different thread, "it" was "the practice of saying 'invite' for 'invitation'". 'it' means the same thing in both cases.

Anonymousone is in the present form

No. In that sentence 'become' is an infinitive. If we change the verb from become (become, became, become) to take (take, took, taken), you should be able to see more clearly that the catenative structure takes an infinitive.

I've noticed it become common. / I've noticed him take the money.
I've noticed that it has become common. / I've noticed that he has taken the money.

Use the search box above and/or Google to find out more about catenative verbs.

AnonymousIsn't there a simpler way for explaining this in simple English?

No.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

CalifJim Anonymoushow it relates to the use of 'it' with and without 'has'!'it' is the subject of 'become' in either case.AnonymousI thought that 'it' in the first example refers to something previously mentioned, where as in the second it does not?No. In the original context, which was in a different thread, "it" was "the practice of saying 'invite' for 'invitation'". 'it' means the same thing in both cases.Anonymousone is in the present formNo. In that sentence 'become' is an infinitive. If we change the verb from become (become, became, become) to take (take, took, taken), you should be able to see more clearly that the catenative structure takes an infinitive.I've noticed it become common. / I notice him take the money.I've noticed that it has become common. / I've noticed that he has taken the money.Use the search box above and/or Google to find out more about catenative verbs.AnonymousIsn't there a simpler way for explaining this in simple English?No.CJ

Thank you I think I got it.

So do they convey the same information, using different a structure? Is that the difference?

Also, this sentence that you write sounds kind of weird to my ears, 'I notice him take the money'. Shouldn't it be 'I've noticed him....'?

CalifJim · Answer

Anonymoussame information ... different structure

Right. That's the difference.

Anonymous'I notice him take the money'. Shouldn't it be 'I've noticed him....'?

Yes. I went back and corrected that in my post.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

CalifJim Anonymoussame information ... different structureRight. That's the difference.Anonymous'I notice him take the money'. Shouldn't it be 'I've noticed him....'?Yes. I went back and corrected that in my post.CJ

Thank you very much that was very helpful.
So, just to confirm, they are both in the same form (as in the past or present perfect) but the cantenative one takes an infinitive, right?

Also, are these sentences possible since you wrote one of them:
I notice him take ....
I noticed him take...

OMG, there are just may ways to write in English! I am just amazed how you know all these rules!

CalifJim · Answer

Anonymousthe cantenative one takes an infinitive, right?

Right.

AnonymousI notice him take ....I noticed him take...

Yes, both are possible.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

CalifJim Anonymousthe cantenative one takes an infinitive, right?Right.AnonymousI notice him take ....I noticed him take...Yes, both are possible.CJ

Thanks CJ!

Joe

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