0
Guest Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

Use of have to express possession

Beginners in my country, Argentina, tend to conjugate have to express possession without using the necessary auxiliary. Maybe they transfer the use of " have got ", which is very similar to the Spanish "tener" and omit the auxiliary.
Would it be considered utterly incorrect from the grammatical point of view?
I still do, but I would like to be fair with my students and if it is used in any register I would like to point it out to them.

Thanks,
Martita
  

Top answer

' are identical in meaning, with 'have got' only slightly less formal than 'have'. However, 'Have got' is used more often in the present tense than in the past ('had got'). 'Tener' for possession ('Yo tengo un amigo en Los Angeles') could be equally well translated by either.

— Mister Micawber

  • ' are identical in meaning, with 'have got' only slightly less formal than 'have'.
  • However, 'Have got' is used more often in the present tense than in the past ('had got').
  • 'Tener' for possession ('Yo tengo un amigo en Los Angeles') could be equally well translated by either.
  • Some other idioms with 'tener' may also accept either translation, though I am no expert.
  • For instance, 'tener que' ('Tenemos que irnos') could equally well be translated as 'We have to go away' or 'We have got to go away'.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

3 Answers
0
I am not quite sure as to your exact question, but 'have' and 'have got' used for possession, as in:

'I have a headache/new car/great idea.'
'I have got a headache/new car/great idea.'

are identical in meaning, with 'have got' only slightly less formal than 'have'.

However, 'Have got' is used more often in the present tense than in the past ('had got').
0
0
Hello, Martita. Emotion: smile
I'm Argentinian too, and I've seen that most beginners have the same problem, not only with "have" but with any
0
0
The form "have got" is british, that is, used in british English, while "have" is american. That is one of the "many" differences found between "british" and "american" English. Maybe, nobody told you that when you were learning English.

Max Marcano
Venezuela
0

Related Questions