According to Henry David Thoreau, a majority is allowed to rule not because it is more likely to be right, but because it is stronger.
According to Henry David Thoreau, the reason why the majority rules is that it is strong, not because it is likely to be right
Which one is better?
The first.
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I prefer your #1, and it seems closer to the original version by Thoreau, as follows.
After all, the practical reason why, when the power is once in the hands of the people, a majority are permitted, and for a long period continue, to rule, is not because they are most likely to be in the right, nor because this seems fairest to the minority, but because they are physically the stron