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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Use of "be" vs. "to be" in sentences

Which of the following sentences are grammatically correct?

1) Judaic law requires all men to be circumsized.

2) Judaic law requires all men be circumsized.

3) Judaic law requires that all men be circumsized.
  

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All of them.

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8 Answers
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Grammar GeekAll of them.


Interesting. I understand sentences #1 and #3, but not #2.

Sentence #1 is passive voice (the subject "men" receives the action of the verb "to be.")

Sentence #3 is conjunctive mood, following the conjunction "that," and so the verb "to be" can be conjugated "be."

Can you please help me unders
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Subjunctive, not conductive, and it's the same for 2 and 3, used to express a "command, request, or suggestion."

The "that" is simply optional.

I demand [that] the prisoner be released.
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Grammar GeekSubjunctive, not conductive, and it's the same for 2 and 3, used to express a "command, request, or suggestion."

The "that" is simply optional.

I demand [that] the prisoner be released.


I see. If the "that" is purely optional, then would the following sentence also be correct?

"Judaic law requires all men are circumsi
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Well, I'm an old fuddy-duddy, so I would use the subjective "be" in both of those and not "are," but I would still say that the "that" is optional for either.
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Hi, GG

First, the poster said conjunctive mood, not conductive. Conjunctive is another way to say subjunctive.

Second, can you please tell me why the to infinitive is acceptable subjunctive form here (the first sentence)? I was under the impression the mandative subjunctive required the bare infinitive. Never have I seen it with 'to' (but obviously that doesn't mean it's wrong).
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Judaic law requires all men be circumsized.

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