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Mdspencer Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Usage of tense and inferred meaning.

Today, I was chatting with a Japanese friend who indicated that she was uncomfortable with the tense of "patients who test positive for an antibiotic resistant infection". She asked why it was not "who tested" or "who have tested" or "who have been tested".

My answer was that it was probably a question of style, but also there are some inferred meanings when tense is introduced. I said that using no tense places no emphasis on the state of being tested.

For example "patients who tested" seems quite plain and factual but states that the test must occur first. When using "who have tested" implies a present state regarding something happening in the past, but does not imply any sense of time. Finally I suggested that "who have been tested" would place emphasis on the fact that a test had been carried out.

I am interested in whether my statements are correct, or whether there is something that I have missed.
  

Top answer

mdspencer I said that using no tense places no emphasis on the state of being tested. The original sentence is in simple present tense. '

  • mdspencer I said that using no tense places no emphasis on the state of being tested.
  • The original sentence is in simple present tense.
  • '
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2 Answers
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mdspencer I said that using no tense places no emphasis on the state of being tested.
The original sentence is in simple present tense. It means 'at any time', which is what the writer means: 'patients who at any time test positive...'
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Thanks for your answer. Simple and to the point, which is exactly what I needed.

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