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Ceph Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Usage of modals without future form in future context

With reference to Johnson F's reply on http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/136704-past-future-tense-must.html

"Must" does not have a future form.


A sentence like the one below that can be inferred as:
I must (present obligation) finish my homework tomorrow (in future time).


Now the question is what happens if we place the future time indicator 'tomorrow' at the beginning:
Tomorrow I must finish my homework.
Is the sentence correct? The emphasis is on a future time 'tomorrow' yet 'must' refers to a present obligation.


Should it be this instead since there is no future form of 'must':
Tomorrow I will have to finish my homework.


I have seen and heard lot of people using 'must' in the future conditionals:
When it happens (in the future), we must...


Shouldn't it be:
When it happens (in the future), we will have to...


This also applies to 'have to' 'need to' and other modals like 'can':
I can (present ability) do my chores tomorrow (future time) & Tomorrow I can/will be able to do my chores
I have to (present obligation) do this tomorrow & Tomorrow I have to/will have to do this


Could someone please kindly enlighten me on these? Thanks.
  

Top answer

I don't know why you are carrying a thread from another website here, but these are correct forms: Tomorrow I must. Tomorrow I will be able to Tomorrow I can Tomorrow I have to Tomorrow I will have to Tomorrow I may etc. The full modals are non-past (= present and future) forms.

  • I don't know why you are carrying a thread from another website here, but these are correct forms: Tomorrow I must.
  • Tomorrow I will be able to Tomorrow I can Tomorrow I have to Tomorrow I will have to Tomorrow I may etc.
  • The full modals are non-past (= present and future) forms.
  • The semi-modals have both forms.
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4 Answers
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I don't know why you are carrying a thread from another website here, but these are correct forms:

Tomorrow I must.
Tomorrow I will be able to
Tomorrow I can
Tomorrow I have to
Tomorrow I will have to
Tomorrow I may
etc.

The full modals are non-past (= present and future) forms.
The semi-modals have both forms.
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It is because some educators told me that the modals have no future forms as what the thread from the other forum says.

If you analyse the following sentence:
I must/have to do my homework tomorrow.
You are talking about a present obligation to do the homework tomorrow.

With emphasis placed on future context 'tomorrow':
Tomorrow I must/have to do my h
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I see what you mean about 'present obligation', but I don't see that moving 'tomorrow' affects the interpretation at all. In fact, neither does '(Tomorrow) I will have to do my homework (tomorrow)', which is still a present conception of an obligation. It is the conception of the obligation that remains in present (as it must, since the speaker speaks now), but the obligation does not go into ef
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Isn't 'will have to' talking about a future obligation? May I know how is it a present obligation when it is future 'will' we are talking about?

I see no conflict in '(Tomorrow) I will have to (future obligation) to do my homework (tomorrow)'.

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