Dear folks,
I came across the following expression just now, which
is pretty confusing to me probably because of my scant
knowledge about the U.S. legal system, I would say.
The expression is included in the following passage
(source unknown):
San Francisco FNB members believe the crackdown is in
retaliation for its support homeless people's efforts to
protest against the city's policies toward them. The group
has filed lawsuits with both state and federal governments
protesting against its treatment, and it has convinced Amnesty
International to look into declaring FNB members jailed
in San Francisco to be "prisoners of conscience."
If it were "filed lawsuits with both state and federal courts,"
it makes sense to me. I was wondering if state and federal
governments in the U.S. should work as a judicial-type body
as well as institutions such as administration and government.
I would be obliged if anybody should help me out.
Ray
Courts and governments are separate. The sentence would be clearer if written this way. The group has filed lawsuits against with both state and federal governments .
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Courts and governments are separate.
The sentence would be clearer if written this way. The group has filed lawsuits against with both state and federal governments . . .