"http://www.businessweek.com/magazine/content/10_15/b4173080302669.htm "
If you fail to open the article link, please Google a Businessweek article entitled "Making Debt Holders into Watchdogs "
Hello everybody, I have a few minor questions about this article, which talks about the Dodd financial reform bill and how tail risks are involved in the financial crisis. Hope somebody would help answer my questions, I appreciate your help.
1. What does the author mean by saying " D....argue that perverse risk-taking had nothing to do with incentives" ? Also, what does perverse risk-taking refer to here as I couldn't find any specific meaning of it in the dictionary.
2. "In fact, studies show that CEOs of banks that paid most aggressively took the greatest risks. It paid off during the 1990s........The Fed came to their rescue......"
After reading this paragraph, I assumed the CEOs who are paid the most by banks took the greatest risks. Risk-taking paid off during the 90s but it backfired afterwards. Did I understand it correctly? if not, please let me know what it really meant.
3. "all banks should be required to issue a minimum level of debt(say 10& of assets) that is automatically impaired - either converted to equity or written down - if the bank suffers sufficient losses."
Why does a bank need to issue at least 10% impaired debt when it is already losing money? Wouldn't it make more sense if it were to be required to issue a "maximum" level of 10% debt?
4. For those who have a finance background, I would like to ask you one more question: "They miss the point that anyone who has equity-like claim to all the upside of a firm's profits has an incentive to take on tail risk." Can anyone help me explain this? Thank you very much.