Until tense
1. A man in the audience refused to leave until he had spoken to the manager.
2. A man in the audience had refused to leave until he spoke to the manager.
Having realized that the act of refusing occurs before the act of speaking, I think sentence 2 is correct but I am not sure. Could you help me clarify it? Thanks.
Top answer
It is not clear to me that "had refused to leave" can be justified by the fact that refusing occurs before speaking. It would be justified if "refused" happened prior to some other past action or past reference point external to this sentence. For example: "I was late home from work that evening.
- It is not clear to me that "had refused to leave" can be justified by the fact that refusing occurs before speaking.
- It would be justified if "refused" happened prior to some other past action or past reference point external to this sentence.
- For example: "I was late home from work that evening.
- ".
- Otherwise, "refused to leave" is the norm, as in sentence 1.
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It is not clear to me that "had refused to leave" can be justified by the fact that refusing occurs before speaking. It would be justified if "refused" happened prior to some other past action or past reference point external to this sentence. For example: "I was late home from work that evening. A man in the audience had refused ...". Otherwise, "refused to leave" is the norm, as in sentence
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