" Both general truths, thus present tense is recommended. " had gotten is past perfect (plusperfect) here, not perfect, and it is correct, as it is an action which precedes getting into high school.
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I wonder that when "until" introduces a sentence, both the clauses must be in the same verb tense. Is it true?Absolutely false!
There must be a clause in the perfect tense when by the time is used. Is it true?This has the ring of truth. It certainly is the norm, especially if you include the modal perfect tenses (must have, would have, ...). And yet, counterexamples do exist, particularly with a stative verb in the main clause.