Unsure about gerunds and their preceding pronouns

Question

I'm confused over the syntax of the following sentence:

"I can't prevent your being offended."

I don't know whether "being" is functioning as a gerund (and, therefore, should be preceded by a possessive pronoun) or as a present participle, which would require the pronoun "you" instead.

Which is it? Or is it neither? My instinct is that it's a gerund – i.e., a verb functioning as a noun – that's the direct object of the verb "prevent"; it's the person's state of being offended that I can't prevent. But I'm not sure if my undestanding of gerunds is correct.

My second question is related. Some online sources say you can use either an accusative (objective) or genitive (possessive) case pronoun in front of an -ing verb, such as in this example:

"Mabel appreciated them buying her a beret."

"Mabel appreciated their buying her a beret."

It's said that using "them" puts the emphasis on the people buying the beret, while "their" emphasises the action of their buying. But does changing the pronoun also change the function of "buying"? Is it a gerund in both sentences, or is it a participle in the first and a gerund in the second?

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

JJDouglas"I can't prevent your being offended."

Your is possessive. "Being" is a gerund. This is the analysis in traditional English grammar.

"Your being offended" is the complement of the verb "prevent."

Another way to say it:

I can't prevent you (from) being offended.

JJDouglasSome online sources say you can use either an accusative (objective) or genitive (possessive) case pronoun in front of an -ing verb, such as in this example:

This aspect (detail) of grammar has been evolving. Inflections are slowly and inexorably eroding away. So people now use the object form as well as the possessive form.

Modern grammars generally avoid making a distinction between a participial clause and a gerundial clause.

"Gerund" has more or less dropped out of the grammar, except in cases where the participle is clearly functioning as a noun. e.g. Smoking causes cancer.

These are more or less synonymous, but the second sounds more formal and old fashioned.

Mabel appreciated them buying her a beret.
Mabel appreciated their buying her a beret.

CalifJim · Answer

JJDouglasSome online sources say you can use either an accusative (objective) or genitive (possessive) case pronoun in front of an -ing verb

Correct. The possessive case is a bit more formal.

The argument about which case is "correct" in these constructions has been going on for more than 100 years, and I doubt it will ever be resolved.

JJDouglasIt's said that using "them" puts the emphasis on the people buying the beret, while "their" emphasises the action of their buying.

This is also debatable, though it may be true in specific cases.

JJDouglasBut does changing the pronoun also change the function of "buying"?

No. Not really. However, them makes buying slightly more "verb-y", while their makes buying slightly more "noun-y". I wouldn't agonize over that.

JJDouglasIs it a gerund in both sentences

Yes. You can also call it simply an -ing form, which is pretty fashionable nowadays. The term 'gerund-participle' has also become popular lately.

JJDouglasI don't know whether "being" is functioning as a gerund (and, therefore, should be preceded by a possessive pronoun) or as a present participle, which would require the pronoun "you" instead.

As discussed above, the tendency nowadays is not to make such distinctions, so you can safely ignore this line of thinking. 'you' and 'your' are the choices before the -ing form. It doesn't matter what you call them.

CJ

Anonymous · Answer

JJDouglasI don't know whether "being" is functioning as a gerund (and, therefore, should be preceded by a possessive pronoun) or as a present participle, which would require the pronoun "you" instead.

It is a gerund. What changes is your interpretation of the meaning of "being". Either you cannot control his emotions, or you cannot control what happens to him. There is no case in which "you" is demanded, and many of us still find "you" non-standard there after all the debate dies down.

JJDouglasIt's said that using "them" puts the emphasis on the people buying the beret, while "their" emphasises the action of their buying.

I don't see it that way. People who never bothered to learn the language they grew up speaking use "them", and when they find out that other people think that it's wrong, they invent a faulty justification for it, gaming the rules to avoid a penalty. You can appreciate them, but "buying" in that position can only mean that they are in the act of buying, your "participle", which is not what is meant. Those of us who know the difference have to recalibrate our sense of idiom each time to accommodate the mistake. You can say it's our problem, and it is, but it's yours too if your reader balks. It's like putting coriander in your food—twenty percent of your guests will be offended.

That is not to say that the possessive before a gerund is not fading from the language. It may well be. Many, many aspects of English have changed over the centuries because of mistakes, and we blithely use them today as if they were ordained. This seems to be another change coming on. But for now I recommend sticking with the possessive, at least in formal discourse.

Unsure about gerunds and their preceding pronouns

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