In the first case, the idiomatic use of 'would' is for past habit. It is a formal and somewhat dated form of 'used to'.
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Mister Micawber
In the first case, the idiomatic use of 'would' is for past habit. It is a formal and somewhat dated form of 'used to'.
Mr WordyMister Micawber
In the first case, the idiomatic use of 'would' is for past habit. It is a formal and somewhat dated form of 'used to'.
I don't see that. The only difference I see is that in the first pair the future event was known or predicted at the time, whereas in the second it's known only with hindsi
English 1b3What is the tense of would + infinitive? Is it taken from the surrounding verbs?
English 1b3 I see no differenceI don't either, except as noted by Mr Wordy. I don't think the headings are very informative. As far as I can see, both categories are about the future of the past.
CalifJimin the second case, the speaker places himself in the present, so the future of that past is already known.
English 1b3Are you talking about the third sentence of mine; that is, do you mean 'herself'?No. I'm talking about the speaker of any such sentence.
English 1b3And how has the speaker placed himself in the present?The speaker already knows the outcome of the past situation. It's a sort of omniscient present
CalifJimThe speaker already knows the outcome of the past situation. It's a sort of omniscient present point of view. If I already know the whole story and what eventually happened, I can "place myself in the present" when I talk about something in the story.Ah, k, so there is no difference in structure or tense to convey what you're talking about; The diff
English 1b3so there is no difference in structure or tense to convey what you're talking about; The difference is only that the speaker knows what happens (even though the tense of the sentence is past tense)Right.