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Navitasan Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Two of your men
Are sentences '1' and '2' correct with the given meanings:
1-You don't know how I feel. One of your men did not get shot.
(One of my men got shot. But you don't know how that feels, because none of your men got shot.)
2-You don't know how I feel. Two of your men did not get shot.
(Two of my men got shot. But you don't know how that feels, because none of your men got shot.)
Gratefully,
Navi.
1-You don't know how I feel. One of your men did not get shot.
(One of my men got shot. But you don't know how that feels, because none of your men got shot.)
2-You don't know how I feel. Two of your men did not get shot.
(Two of my men got shot. But you don't know how that feels, because none of your men got shot.)
Gratefully,
Navi.
Top answer
navitasan Are sentences '1' and '2' correct with the given meanings: Yes, but we usually say it more idiomatically using 'have' meaning 'experience'. Here's how that idiom works: You didn't have [one / two] of your men get shot. There's no difference whether you say 'one' or 'two' or 'three' ....
- navitasan Are sentences '1' and '2' correct with the given meanings: Yes, but we usually say it more idiomatically using 'have' meaning 'experience'.
- Here's how that idiom works: You didn't have [one / two] of your men get shot.
- There's no difference whether you say 'one' or 'two' or 'three' ....
- The grammar is the same.
- CJ
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1 Answers
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navitasanAre sentences '1' and '2' correct with the given meanings:Yes, but we usually say it more idiomatically using 'have' meaning 'experience'. Here's how that idiom works:
You didn't have [one / two] of your men get shot.
There's no difference whether you say 'one' or 'two' or 'three' .... The grammar is the same.
CJ
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