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Shcho23 Posted 6 years ago
Grammar

Transitive verb without an object?

I took a test, and one of the answers was "Give Machines a Break to Avoid Overuse."

But I wrote "Give Machines a Break to Avoid Overusing" because "avoid" is followed by a gerund.

But my teacher said my answer is incorrect because no object follows the transitive verb "overuse".

Is it true? Is my answer incorrect?

Can you give me any counterexamples that validate my answer?

Thank you so much.

(I'm desperate for extra points.)

  

Top answer

shcho23 But my teacher said my answer is incorrect because no object follows the transitive verb "overuse". You are both wrong, but in different ways. First, "overuse" is a noun here, not a verb.

— AlpheccaStars

  • shcho23 But my teacher said my answer is incorrect because no object follows the transitive verb "overuse".
  • You are both wrong, but in different ways.
  • First, "overuse" is a noun here, not a verb.
  • Your teacher is correct in that if "overuse" is used as a verb (or verb form), it must be followed by an object.
  • Do not overuse your muscles when you begin an exercise program.
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2 Answers
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shcho23But my teacher said my answer is incorrect because no object follows the transitive verb "overuse".

You are both wrong, but in different ways.

First, "overuse" is a noun here, not a verb.

Your teacher is correct in that if "overuse" is used as a verb (or verb form), it must be followed by an object.

Do not overuse yo
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[1] Give machines a break to to avoid overuse.

[2] Give machines a break to avoid overusing.


Both are correct, though [1] is far more likely.

In [1] "overuse" is a noun functioning as object of "avoid".

In [2] "overusing" is strictly speaking ambiguous between a verb and a noun, though verb preferred.

In the verb analysis "overusing" is function

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