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Stenka25 Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
‘to which’ vs. 'for which'
‘to which’ vs. 'for which'
The passage below come from a book, To The End of the Earth.
https://books.google.co.kr/books?id=Dm0SILERbOgC&pg=PA11&lpg=PA11&dq=%22of+all+the+purposes+to+which+maps+have+been+put+through%22&source=bl&ots=DgaDBQRQyX&sig=-yRO2SZAMf9B1T131TNjOVPROYE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CBwQ6AEwAGoVChMIkd7Iw4GnxwIVDKOUCh1oeQER#v=onepage&q=%22of%20all%20the%20purposes%20to%20which%20maps%20have%20been%20put%20through%22&f=false
There are other problems for the modern observer. Maps made in prehistoric times - made today by non-literate or indigenous societies - cannot be accompanied by a title that explains the meaning of the drawing or that describes its content. However, we may be sure that in early times, just like today, maps were created for a variety of purposes and took a variety of forms. It may also be clear that, contrary to popular belief, of all the purposes to which maps have been put through the ages, the least important single purpose has been to find the way.
In this passage I want to ask something about 'to which'.
In my grammatical sense, 'to which' can be replaced by 'for which' since 'maps have been put through the ages 'for the purposes'.
Am I right?
And if I am right, of the two, which do you think better?
The passage below come from a book, To The End of the Earth.
https://books.google.co.kr/books?id=Dm0SILERbOgC&pg=PA11&lpg=PA11&dq=%22of+all+the+purposes+to+which+maps+have+been+put+through%22&source=bl&ots=DgaDBQRQyX&sig=-yRO2SZAMf9B1T131TNjOVPROYE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CBwQ6AEwAGoVChMIkd7Iw4GnxwIVDKOUCh1oeQER#v=onepage&q=%22of%20all%20the%20purposes%20to%20which%20maps%20have%20been%20put%20through%22&f=false
There are other problems for the modern observer. Maps made in prehistoric times - made today by non-literate or indigenous societies - cannot be accompanied by a title that explains the meaning of the drawing or that describes its content. However, we may be sure that in early times, just like today, maps were created for a variety of purposes and took a variety of forms. It may also be clear that, contrary to popular belief, of all the purposes to which maps have been put through the ages, the least important single purpose has been to find the way.
In this passage I want to ask something about 'to which'.
In my grammatical sense, 'to which' can be replaced by 'for which' since 'maps have been put through the ages 'for the purposes'.
Am I right?
And if I am right, of the two, which do you think better?
Top answer
Stenka25 the purposes to which maps have been put to put a map to a certain purpose vs to put a map for a certain purpose The problem is "put". It would have to take the preposition "to" in this case. The usual word is "use", not "purpose", so "purpose" is somewhat odd to my ear.
- Stenka25 the purposes to which maps have been put to put a map to a certain purpose vs to put a map for a certain purpose The problem is "put".
- It would have to take the preposition "to" in this case.
- The usual word is "use", not "purpose", so "purpose" is somewhat odd to my ear.
- Yet, it would take the same preposition either way.
- to put (something) to (a certain) use is the usual expression.
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2 Answers
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Stenka25the purposes to which maps have been putto put a map to a certain purpose
vs
to put a map for a certain purpose
The problem is "put". It would have to take the preposition "to" in this case.
The usual word is "use", not "purpose", so "purpose" is somewhat odd to my ear. Yet, it would take the same preposition
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