To v1 vs. to have v3
Hello,
My question is about a structure which is: "to be first person to v1" vs. "to be the first person to have v3"
Can you explain the difference between these two:
1. He was the first person to travel over the world by himself.
2. He was the first person to have traveled over the world by himself.
Which should be used when? Thanks in advance...
Top answer
I believe the answer lies in how you specify past tense of the action. In 1, "was" signifies past tense, and says that he has already done this. In 2, "to have" signifies past tense.
- I believe the answer lies in how you specify past tense of the action.
- In 1, "was" signifies past tense, and says that he has already done this.
- In 2, "to have" signifies past tense.
- Therefore, I'd either use 1 as written, or use 2 adjusted as: He is the first person to have traveled over the world by himself.
- This assume the person is currently alive.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
I believe the answer lies in how you specify past tense of the action. In 1, "was" signifies past tense, and says that he has already done this. In 2, "to have" signifies past tense. Therefore, I'd either use 1 as written, or use 2 adjusted as:
He is the first person to have traveled over the world by himself.
This assume the person is currently alive. If the person is dec
0
Related Questions