To v1 / v1+ing OR to have +v3/ having+v3
What is the difference between them?
For example, I fell asleep and so I am late.
Which one is better?
I am late because of having fallen asleep(I think it is better)
or
I am late because of falling asleep.
for another example;
I have a little memory problem on my brain and I can't remember exactly whether i was at home at 8.
And I've remembered suddenly, decided that I was at home at 8.
So,
Which one is more correct?
I am thinking to be at home.
I am thinking to have been at home.(I think it is better too)
Top answer
Say, "I'm late because I fell asleep" and "I think I was at home at 8". The use of those participles and infinitives is unidiomatic. , to take ) rather than the perfect infinitive ( to have taken ).
- Say, "I'm late because I fell asleep" and "I think I was at home at 8".
- The use of those participles and infinitives is unidiomatic.
- , to take ) rather than the perfect infinitive ( to have taken ).
- And likewise for the participles ( taking rather than having taken ).
- However, there are cases where you use one of the other depending on the time relationship you want to express.
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Say, "I'm late because I fell asleep" and "I think I was at home at 8".
The use of those participles and infinitives is unidiomatic.
However, in the general case, it is usually sufficient to use the plain infinitive (e.g., to take) rather than the perfect infinitive (to have taken). And likewise for the participles (taking rather than having taken). Ho
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