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SuperESL Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
To + ing
"..be more suitable to the conveying of the prevalence of it."
"..be more suitable to conveying the prevalence of it."
"..be more suitable for conveying the prevalence of it."
"..be more suitable to convey the prevalence of it."
Are any of the four phrases above wrong grammar-wise? Must an infinitive follow "to"? It seems that in some cases, as in "I look forward to hearing from you," a gerund follows "to." But in the case of "suitable to" I am not sure.
"..be more suitable to conveying the prevalence of it."
"..be more suitable for conveying the prevalence of it."
"..be more suitable to convey the prevalence of it."
Are any of the four phrases above wrong grammar-wise? Must an infinitive follow "to"? It seems that in some cases, as in "I look forward to hearing from you," a gerund follows "to." But in the case of "suitable to" I am not sure.
Top answer
be more suitable to conveying its prevalence. be more suitable for conveying its prevalence. be more suitable to convey its prevalence.
- be more suitable to conveying its prevalence.
- be more suitable for conveying its prevalence.
- be more suitable to convey its prevalence.
- -- They were all wrong.
- I have fixed the useful ones.
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1 Answers
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be more suitable to conveying its prevalence.
be more suitable for conveying its prevalence.
be more suitable to convey its prevalence.
Are any of the four phrases above wrong grammar-wise?-- They were all wrong. I have fixed the useful ones.
Must an infinitive follow "to"?-- No.
It seems that in some cases, as in "I
be more suitable for conveying its prevalence.
be more suitable to convey its prevalence.
Are any of the four phrases above wrong grammar-wise?-- They were all wrong. I have fixed the useful ones.
Must an infinitive follow "to"?-- No.
It seems that in some cases, as in "I
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