0Hello Latin02br 02br 00It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 01i 00inside02i 00 it. Thus here, #2 has a "friendlier" air, to my ears:02br 02br 001. 02br 02br 002.
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01cite10Latin12cite10Hello.12br
10I know there is a difference (maybe not so evident) when one uses the to-infinitive or the gerund when they act as subject of the sentence. Some sources just say that the gerund is much more common in this function without mentioning the reason. With so little information I don't know how to
01cite10MrPedantic12cite10It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 11i10inside12i10 it. 12br10So, would the
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01cite10Goodman12cite12br
11blockquote11cite20Latin22cite20Hello.22br
20I know there is a difference (maybe not so evident) when one uses the to-infinitive or the gerund when they act as subject of the sentence. Some sources just say that the gerund is much more common in this
00 So, would the to-infinitive convey a more 'abstract' meaning (of actions not so common) and the gerund one that you feel more close (of actions more common)?12blockquote10Yes, I think the to-infinitive does (on the whole) have a more abstract air than the gerund. (There are doubtless exceptions: maybe certain set phrases, for in