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Klavier Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

to infinitive/gerund as subject

0 Hello.02br
00I know there is a difference (maybe not so evident) when one uses the to-infinitive or the gerund when they act as subject of the sentence. Some sources just say that the gerund is much more common in this function without mentioning the reason. With so little information I don't know how to make my choice before making the phrase. So, my question is: how do you know when to use the gerund or the to-infinitive before saying the utterance? Does it depend on the verb itself or the sentence that accompany the verb?0-
  

Top answer

0Hello Latin02br 02br 00It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 01i 00inside02i 00 it. Thus here, #2 has a "friendlier" air, to my ears:02br 02br 001. 02br 02br 002.

  • 0Hello Latin02br 02br 00It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 01i 00inside02i 00 it.
  • Thus here, #2 has a "friendlier" air, to my ears:02br 02br 001.
  • 02br 02br 002.
  • 02br 02br 00In some contexts, a to-infinitive has an odd or chilly effect:02br 02br 003.
  • Swimming in the sea is very enjoyable.
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5 Answers
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0Hello Latin02br
02br
00It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 01i00inside02i00 it. Thus here, #2 has a "friendlier" air, to my ears:02br
02br
001. To err is human; to
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Latin12cite10Hello.12br
10I know there is a difference (maybe not so evident) when one uses the to-infinitive or the gerund when they act as subject of the sentence. Some sources just say that the gerund is much more common in this function without mentioning the reason. With so little information I don't know how to
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10MrPedantic12cite10It seems to me that with the to-infinitive, you focus on the action as a completed whole, and so seem to stand outside it; whereas with the gerund, you focus on the action as a process, and so seem to stand 11i10inside12i10 it. 12br
12blockquote
10So, would the
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Goodman12cite12br
11blockquote
11cite20Latin22cite20Hello.22br
20I know there is a difference (maybe not so evident) when one uses the to-infinitive or the gerund when they act as subject of the sentence. Some sources just say that the gerund is much more common in this
0
0Hello Latin01blockquote
00 So, would the to-infinitive convey a more 'abstract' meaning (of actions not so common) and the gerund one that you feel more close (of actions more common)?12blockquote
10Yes, I think the to-infinitive does (on the whole) have a more abstract air than the gerund. (There are doubtless exceptions: maybe certain set phrases, for in

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