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Lucas21c Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

'to infinitive' vs 'gerund'

I think the following sentences, 1-A and 1-B sound natural while 2-A and 2-B sound awkward.
Could you tell me what the differences are between 1 and 2?
Thank you.

1-A> She is anxious to leave.
1-B> She is bored studying English.

2-A> She is anxious leaving.
2-B> She is bored to study English.
  

Top answer

I'd say that 1A is fine, and that 1B is possible. 2A is highly unlikely, and "B is not possible.

  • I'd say that 1A is fine, and that 1B is possible.
  • 2A is highly unlikely, and "B is not possible.
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2 Answers
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I'd say that 1A is fine, and that 1B is possible. 2A is highly unlikely, and "B is not possible.
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Could you explain to me why both of 2 are not acceptable?
For me, they seem to have the same structures as 1.
If 1A is acceptable, why can't 2B be acceptable? Also, if 1B is fine, why is 2A wrong?

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