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Nddad Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

to infinitive or to gerund

0What do you say to + ∼ ing ? 02br
00be opposed to + ∼ ing02br
00object to + ∼ ing 02br
00have an objection to + ∼ ing 02br
00contribute to + ∼ ing 02br
00turn one's attention to + ∼ ing 02br
00with a view to + ∼ ing 02br
00be equal to + ∼ ing 02br
00devote A to + ∼ ing 02br
00look forward to + ∼ ing 02br
00fall to + ∼ ing 02br
02br
00From above, "to" is a preposition, not infinitive. 02br
02br
00How do I tell the difference between " to infinitive and to gerund " ??02br
02br
00Pls let me know it.02br
02br
00Thanks & Regards02br
02br
00Terry 0-
  

Top answer

0Hi,02br 01font 02br 02br 01font 00From above, "to" is02font 00 a preposition, not infinitive. ' I think a practical answer is that, as you get used to speaking a lot of English, you simply become familiar with phrases like this. 02br 02br 00Best wishes, Clive02br 02font 0-

— Clive

  • 0Hi,02br 01font 02br 02br 01font 00From above, "to" is02font 00 a preposition, not infinitive.
  • ' I think a practical answer is that, as you get used to speaking a lot of English, you simply become familiar with phrases like this.
  • 02br 02br 00Best wishes, Clive02br 02font 0-
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8 Answers
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0Hi,02br
01font02br
02br
01font00From above, "to" is02font00 a preposition, not infinitive. 00Yes.02br
02br
01font00How do I tell the difference between " to infinitive and to gerund " ??02font00 To answer your question directly, a gerund
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Nddad12cite10How do I tell the difference between " to infinitive and to gerund " ??12br
12blockquote
10If you are asking how you can tell when 01i00to02i00 is a preposition and when it's part of an infinitive, the answer is simple. If you can put a noun or a 01font
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Hi, my name is Widi from Indonesia.

Which sentence is grammatically correct? She objects to me buying the house or she objects to my buying the house? Thanks.
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Both are in wide use. The first is informal; the second is formally correct.
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Thanks for the answer. I am a near-native English teacher, have been teaching English for more than 20 years, and have never been able to find a grammar book that explains this to both teachers and students. Maybe because book writers take this for granted, but it may be quite confusing to students. You say that by becoming familiar with it may be a solution...yes, like for a child who grows up in
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AnonymousBooks should include a unit devoted to all the verbs and expressions of to + -ing
Try this reference:
http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Appendix:English_catenative_verbs
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NddadFrom above, "to" is a preposition, not infinitive.

How do I tell the difference between " to infinitive and to gerund " ??
I think you're asking whether you should put the base form or the -ing form of the verb after to.

For example, after Congressman Stratton is opposed to, should you write tax the poor or
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Terry

Most of the phrases above are "phrasal verbs" that are "prepositional verbs" (a verb + a preposition). A preposition always requires an object (noun) so the gerund must be used.

There are lists online of phrasal verbs (prepositional verbs and particle verbs)

"with a view to" is not a verb, but is in fact a prepositional phrase itself.
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