0
Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
To-infinitive clause as object to the verb agree?
Hi, I have a transitivity question:
In the sentence
"If he agreed to be contacted again, ..."
how does the relation between the verb and object function?
Or more precisely, can a to-infinitive clause be an object to "agree"?
In the sentence
"If he agreed to be contacted again, ..."
how does the relation between the verb and object function?
Or more precisely, can a to-infinitive clause be an object to "agree"?
Top answer
If I am not mistaken, there is no clause in this sentence. It appears to be that It's a single statement with an assumed result. One may approach the question this way: What did he agree to?
- If I am not mistaken, there is no clause in this sentence.
- It appears to be that It's a single statement with an assumed result.
- One may approach the question this way: What did he agree to?
- The answer should be a noun (gerund), rather than a verb.
- " question which requires the gerund form of the verb after "to".
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
1 Answers
0
If I am not mistaken, there is no clause in this sentence. It appears to be that It's a single statement with an assumed result. One may approach the question this way: What did he agree to? The answer should be a noun (gerund), rather than a verb. This is similar to the " look forward to..." question which requires the gerund form of the verb after "to". Thus the answer is logically this:
0
Related Questions