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Napoleonponapa Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

To infinitive and Gerund as the subject of the sentence

1) Running makes me healthy.

2) To run makes me healthy.

According to some gramma book , both " to infinitive " and " Gerund" can be the subject of the sentence. So what is the difference between the above sentences.

thanks alot
  

Top answer

If the 2 sentences convey the same meaning, then we can equate to the following: 1) Running makes me healthy. = The act of running is good for my health. But !

  • If the 2 sentences convey the same meaning, then we can equate to the following: 1) Running makes me healthy.
  • = The act of running is good for my health.
  • But !
  • 2) To run makes me healthy.
  • =X= The act of running is good for my health.
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2 Answers
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If the 2 sentences convey the same meaning, then we can equate to the following:

1) Running makes me healthy. = The act of running is good for my health.

! But !

2) To run makes me healthy. =X= The act of running is good for my health.

To me, using the "to infinitve" form of a verb as a subject seems erroneous in
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Functioning as a noun, the infinitive phrase is most commonly used as a direct object.
It is rarely used in the subject position, and then only with a linking verb. (I am going out on a limb here and expect a counter example from the others!)

I have seen it also as the object of the preposition "for" :
It's difficult for you and I to see eye-to-eye.

It is also used a

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