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Anonymous Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

To have to + perfect infinitive

Hello,
I've recently found out that I can use "have (got) to" to say that something must be true or happen (The Oxford Dictionary). Now, I'd like to know whether there is any difference between:

"It must have cost you a lot."
"It has to have cost you a lot."
"It had to have cost you a lot."

Thank you.
  

Top answer

""It had to have cost you a lot

— Karansardana

  • ""It had to have cost you a lot
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4 Answers
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Anonymous"It must have cost you a lot.""It has to have cost you a lot.""It had to have cost you a lot
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can we use able to without to be?
is it correct i able to sing a song?
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Anonymous"It must have cost you a lot.""It has to have cost you a lot.""It had to have cost you a lot."
The last two are also grammatically possible and in use, though karansardana's simplifictions can usually replace them.
Here are some rough explanations, all of which boil down to the same intent by the speaker in most cases:

"It must have cost
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Anonymouscan we use able to without to be?is it correct i able to sing a song?
No. And next time, start a new thread for an unrelated question.
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