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Centrist12 Posted 9 years ago
Grammar
To have said
”god was more likely to have said” why is it have when god is singular?
Is it cause it is a reported speech?
Top answer
centrist12 ” *** was more likely to have said” why is it have when *** is singular? 'Have' is an infinitive there, part of a verb complement. The subject and verb are ' *** was '.
- centrist12 ” *** was more likely to have said” why is it have when *** is singular?
- 'Have' is an infinitive there, part of a verb complement.
- The subject and verb are ' *** was '.
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1 Answers
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centrist12”*** was more likely to have said” why is it have when *** is singular?
'Have' is an infinitive there, part of a verb complement. The subject and verb are '*** was'.
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