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Without a greeting, Morgan pointed to five large vases on his marble floor and told Duveen that three were sixteenth-century Ming masterpieces, and the other two exact copies that had cost him a fortune to have made.
Q1. Why is 'to have made' used, not 'to make' ?
Q2. Is this right? 'them' is removed because it refers to the subject 'the other two exact copies' ?
that had cost him a fortune to have made
= The other two exact copies had cost him a fortune to have made them(=the other two exact copies)
Top answer
Hoony Q1. Why is 'to have made' used, not 'to make' ? To make it clear that someone else made them for him.
- Hoony Q1.
- Why is 'to have made' used, not 'to make' ?
- To make it clear that someone else made them for him.
- "to have made" = to cause to be made (it is not the perfect infinitive of "to make" as you may be thinking).
- Hoony Q2.
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HoonyQ1. Why is 'to have made' used, not 'to make' ?
To make it clear that someone else made them for him. "to have made" = to cause to be made (it is not the perfect infinitive of "to make" as you may be thinking).
HoonyQ2. Is this right? 'them' is removed because it refers to the subject 'the other two exact copies' ? that had
0
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