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Witiko Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
To have none of someone + ing
I was pondering whether it's gramatically correct to use the idiomatic expression "to have none of sth." in this way:
"I will have none of them doing that."
I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence. Being able to use the expression this way would surely make it a lot more of a no-brainer expression to me, which I would then have much less throuble squeezing into a sentence.
"I will have none of them doing that."
I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence. Being able to use the expression this way would surely make it a lot more of a no-brainer expression to me, which I would then have much less throuble squeezing into a sentence.
Top answer
" I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence. Being able to use the expression this way would surely make it a lot more of a no-brainer expression to me, which I would then have much less throuble squeezing into a sentence. In my opinion, this is a rhetorical and rather formal structure.
- " I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence.
- Being able to use the expression this way would surely make it a lot more of a no-brainer expression to me, which I would then have much less throuble squeezing into a sentence.
- In my opinion, this is a rhetorical and rather formal structure.
- You are highly unlikely to find it used in everyday English.
- I usually see it in the form where the 'thing' is stated, and then followed by eg 'I will have none of it'.
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1 Answers
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Hi,
I was pondering whether it's gramatically correct to use the idiomatic expression "to have none of sth." in this way:
"I will have none of them doing that."
I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence. Being able to use the express
I was pondering whether it's gramatically correct to use the idiomatic expression "to have none of sth." in this way:
"I will have none of them doing that."
I couldn't confirm this usage, albeit it sounds quite right to me, as "them doing that" figures as an object in the sentence. Being able to use the express
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