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Anonymous Posted 19 years ago
Grammar
to be subjected to or to be subject to
0 Which is to be used? ..... 02 br
00 I guess to be subjected is correct because of "to be". However, is there a case whereby using "to be subject to" is applicable? 0-
00 I guess to be subjected is correct because of "to be". However, is there a case whereby using "to be subject to" is applicable? 0-
Top answer
0 They are both correct but mean different things. If you search this site there was a discussion on this recently. 0-
- 0 They are both correct but mean different things.
- If you search this site there was a discussion on this recently.
- 0-
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2 Answers
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0 They are both correct but mean different things. If you search this site there was a discussion on this recently. 0-
00
1- 'be subject to' means 'depending on'
For example:
-Egypt was legally the king's estate, and everything in it was subject to his will.
-Tariff rates were fixed by the State Council, and partial adjustment to the duty rates was subject to deliberation and final decision by the State Council Tariff Commission.
2-'be sub
For example:
-Egypt was legally the king's estate, and everything in it was subject to his will.
-Tariff rates were fixed by the State Council, and partial adjustment to the duty rates was subject to deliberation and final decision by the State Council Tariff Commission.
2-'be sub
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