0
Moon7296 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

To be seen & has been seen

She wasn`t anywhere to be seen = She was nowhere to be seen.

Then, Do sentences I make below grammatically correct and have the same meaning with two above?

"She hasn`t been seen anywhere. or She has been seen nowhere.
  

Top answer

The second pair are grammatically correct, but have a different shade of meaning. The first pair would commonly be used in the context of a single searcher, or group of searchers, looking in an area where she was expected to be. The second pair imply that many people have been looking everywhere for her, perhaps for a long period of time; and she seems to have vanished from the face of the earth.

— Avangi

  • The second pair are grammatically correct, but have a different shade of meaning.
  • The first pair would commonly be used in the context of a single searcher, or group of searchers, looking in an area where she was expected to be.
  • The second pair imply that many people have been looking everywhere for her, perhaps for a long period of time; and she seems to have vanished from the face of the earth.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

1 Answers
0
The second pair are grammatically correct, but have a different shade of meaning.

The first pair would commonly be used in the context of a single searcher, or group of searchers, looking in an area where she was expected to be.

The second pair imply that many people have been looking everywhere for her, perhaps for a long period of time; and she seems to have vanished from the
0

Related Questions