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Rajan123 Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

TO BE

Dear All,

1) Situation is said to be critical.
2) These types of Nouns are said to be in Possessive Case
3) These trees are not to be found elsewhere.

Can we say this "to be" or "infinitive" joins the two sentences ? Can anybody help me in splitting the above three sentences ? Is there any thumb rule, where after joining these sentences (is, am, are), becomes to be like in above.
  

Top answer

Rajan, I need to know the meaning of the phrase you often use: to split sentences . What does that mean, precisely?

  • Rajan, I need to know the meaning of the phrase you often use: to split sentences .
  • What does that mean, precisely?
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10 Answers
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Rajan, I need to know the meaning of the phrase you often use: to split sentences. What does that mean, precisely?
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I have mentioned three sentences. These sentences are the result of joining of two sentences. Just I want to see after splitting into two, how these sentences look(constructionwise). Please help me in splitting these sentences as you did last time. By doing this, I want to know how "to be" came in existence after joining. I believe before joining the word, "to be" do
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I understand what you wish to do now, Rajan, but I do not see each of these as two sentences joined at all; they are just different ways of expressing one sentence (i.e. one idea):

1) [The] situation is said to be critical (passive) = Someone said that the situation is critical (active)
2) These types of nouns are said to be in [the] possessive case
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But is there any rule by using which we use "to be" in passive voice. "To be" is not appearing in active voice. I mean to say what should be the construction of Active voice which encouarge us to use "to be" in passive voice.

Can we take the following sentences in passive voice.

1) A man thought to be carrying a bomb was shot dead by police officer.

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To me, to be has nothing to do with it:

1) A man (who was) thought to be carrying a bomb was shot dead by police officers. (clause is passive)
A man thought to have a bomb was shot dead by police officers.
A man expected to buy a bomb was shot dead by police officers.

2) Certain parts of the northeast continue to be affected by
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Just I want to know - why "to be" is used here. In passive voice we use to be and in active voice we do not. Why
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OK-- please ignore all my other rambling above. Let's go back to your originals. They belong to two groups of verbs that do not take the active voice:

1) The situation is said to be critical. (this structure with say, repute, rumour, see does not have an active form)
2) These types of nouns are said to be in possessive case. (as #1)

3) Thes
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It's not a matter of splitting the sentences, is it? You want to know how "to be" is used in the sentences and what you must do to remove them. Is that correct?

The reason for the "to be" in your sentences is to express passive voice. The subject is being acted upon, rather than doing the action. Once you provide a doer, you can eliminate the "to be." Passive voice is formed by some form
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I wanted to know why to be has been used:

My teacher told the following on this :

The situation is said to be critical.

Linking verb always takes adjectives. Here "is" a linking verb. But "said" has come in between "is" and critical. As we know "to be" is a joiner and it carries no tense. To make the sentence gramatical to be
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Yes, linking verbs link the adjective back to the subject.

However, in the case you're pondering, the linking verb is used to form passive voice.

Passive voice is formed by the use of a linking verb and the past participle. Look here:

The book was read by many people.

The book is beautiful.

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