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Redkiddy Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

to

Hi from Turkiye,

I sometimes come across this problem in my mind and haven't had a chance to ask until now.

Look at these two sentence....

She hasn't written to him for a long time.

I love him very much .

in the first sentence we used "to" between verb and subject wheras in the second we didn't .WHY?
  

Top answer

One answer is that in your first sentence, him is the indirect object; in the second, him is the direct object. PS: I mean, conceptually. To make it a grammatical indirect object, I can omit the to : She hasn't written him for a long time .

  • One answer is that in your first sentence, him is the indirect object; in the second, him is the direct object.
  • PS: I mean, conceptually.
  • To make it a grammatical indirect object, I can omit the to : She hasn't written him for a long time .
  • As it stands ( She hasn't written to him ), the prepositional phrase is an adverb.
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1 Answers
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One answer is that in your first sentence, him is the indirect object; in the second, him is the direct object.

PS: I mean, conceptually. To make it a grammatical indirect object, I can omit the to: She hasn't written him for a long time. As it stands (She hasn't written to him), the prepositional phrase is an adverb.

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