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Kenkenken9876 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

"Third Sense"

I am learning etymology of auxiliary verbs.

(Quote)
Old English 1st & 3rd person singular present indicative of cunnan "know, have power to, be able," (also "to have carnal knowledge"), from Proto-Germanic *kunnan "to be mentally able, to have learned" (cf. Old Norse kenna "to know, make known," Old Frisian kanna "to recognize, admit," German kennen "to know," Gothic kannjan "to make known"), from PIE root *gno- (see know).

Absorbing the third sense of "to know," that of "to know how to do something" (in addition to "to know as a fact" and "to be acquainted with" something or someone). An Old English preterite-present verb, its original past participle, couth, survived only in its negation (see uncouth), but cf. could. The present participle has spun off as cunning.
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In the explanation above, I do not understand what "the third sense" is.
If "to know" is the third sense, what are the fist and second sense?
  

Top answer

Hi I agree that it isn't clear. I think the writer means the third definition that they have given in the previous paragraph ... 1) to know, have power to, be able 2) to have carnal knowledge 3) to be mentally able, to have learned So, from the third sense, to have learned something is to know how to do something or know the fact and, in a similar way, the word can also be used in the phrase "to know someone" - to be acquainted with them The "gno" syllable is interesting.

  • Hi I agree that it isn't clear.
  • I think the writer means the third definition that they have given in the previous paragraph ...
  • 1) to know, have power to, be able 2) to have carnal knowledge 3) to be mentally able, to have learned So, from the third sense, to have learned something is to know how to do something or know the fact and, in a similar way, the word can also be used in the phrase "to know someone" - to be acquainted with them The "gno" syllable is interesting.
  • It leads to the word agnostic (not knowing whether *** exists or not) - but the word isn't used until the mid-nineteenth century Dave
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5 Answers
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Hi

I agree that it isn't clear. I think the writer means the third definition that they have given in the previous paragraph ...

1) to know, have power to, be able
2) to have carnal knowledge
3) to be mentally able, to have learned

So, from the third sense, to have learned something is to know how to do something or know the fact and, in a similar way, the wo
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Hi,

It seems to me that by 'third sense' they mean a subdivision of the denotation 'know' (i.e. 1 of the denotations of 'cunnan')

So, for example, know is one of the senses (or meanings) of cunnan and can be subdivided into three other meanings, of which the third one, apparently, is 'to know how to do something'.

The other two are mentioned as well: 't
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Thank you very much for your very clear explanation.
Learning etymology is always very interesting and exciting, and it always give me a lot of tips for "how to feel in English" much more than "knowledge".
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Thank you very much for your comment.
I think it helps confirm my understanding.
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kenkenken9876Learning etymology is always very interesting and exciting
I agree. Part of the fun of studying Old English and Middle English texts lies in seeing how some words have come down to us and some have not, and how the survivors have changed along the way.

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